I was listening to a podcast of Radio Lab yesterday, and
heard an interview with the physicist Brian Greene. The topic was the
possibility of a theory of everything (a fundamental theory of physics that
could in principle explain everything else about the universe). Recently some
cosmologists have been thinking about the implications of the multiverse theory
on the possibility of a theory of everything. If millions of different universes
exist, it is difficult to see how a single theory could explain everything
about all those universes. In the course of the discussion, Greene was pushed
on the idea of a multiverse, and was asked if the multiverse was really more of
an object of faith than of science, since we don’t have any observational
evidence that it exists. Greene was adamant that it did not require faith, that
the known fundamental mathematical equations that govern our universe indicate
that other universes exist. He insisted that we are simply following the
equations when we posit the existence of the multiverse. I want to know: is
this true?
My understanding of the multiverse is that it was postulated
as an explanation for our universe’s improbable existence. The chances of our
universe having the exact set of properties that it does, ones that allow life,
are exceedingly slim. To make chance a plausible explanation, we posit that
there are perhaps an infinite number of universes. At least one universe of the millions is
bound to have the set of properties required for life. Ours happens to be it. An
illustration I’ve read is as follows: An arrow is randomly fired into a huge
forest. The arrow hits Mr. Brown. This is an exceedingly unlikely event. One
hypothesis that could explain this event would be to suggest that the forest
was full of people (rendering Mr. Brown one among many possible targets). This
hypothesis, like the multiverse hypothesis, therefore possesses explanatory
value. But without any independent evidence, it necessarily remains speculative
and ad hoc. The hypothesis was invoked specifically to render chance a
plausible explanation, not because there was any empirical evidence supporting
the hypothesis. Critics charge that the multiverse theory is an artificial
inflation of one’s probabilistic resources when the known probabilistic
resources are deemed insufficient to explain an improbable event.
So back to my question: is there mathematical “evidence”
that other universes exist? I’m not asking if the mathematics suggest or allow the
possibility of other universes. This
is obvious and uninteresting. We do not need any equations to know that it is
possible that other universes exist. I want to know if there is something in the
equations that indicates other universes do actually exist, as Mr. Greene
suggested.